It would be a very great convenience if we bad
an exact definition of the sense in which the Archbishop uses the word " Church " when he speaks of the Church in potential conflict with the State,—in the matter of Divorce-laws, for example. Are the practices and teaching of the clergy to be controlled by the authorities of the Church—the Bishops—who, as being appointed by the State, are amenable to the law of the land, or by bodies within the Church which may interpret Canon law and tradition in such a way that loyalty to Church law becomes disloyalty to the law of the land ? For ourselves, we can only say that the Church we know and recognise is the Church of England " as by law established." Does the Archbishop of York mean this? and if not, how would he describe the body of -which he speaks ?
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