10 SEPTEMBER 1994, Page 29

Why oh why

Sir: Spanish is an example of a language which distinguishes between Why? (from

LETTERS

what cause?) and what F. Miles (Letters, 27 August) calls Quhy? (for what purpose?). Hence Tor que?' (Why?) and 'Para que?' (Quhy?).

For example, the question, Tor que tiene mi tio un jardin tan grande7 (Why does my uncle have such a large garden?) would probably elicit the answer, Torque es muy rko' (Because he is a man of considerable means). The same question, if it began with 'Para que?', would doubtless provoke the response, 'Para que todo el mundo sepa que es muy rico' (So that everyone knows he's rich).

I can only agree with your correspondent that the absence of such a distinction in English constitutes a deficiency. The advan- tage of Mr Miles's Quhy? — which I for one would be happy to adopt — is patent: because Quhy? and Why? are indistinguish- able in spoken English, the use of Quhy? would be the preserve of the literate class- es. The opportunities for smugness, pedantry and aggressive social demarcation would be endless.

Austen Ivereigh

54 Waldegrave Park, Twickenham